Jesus had been fielding questions. Now, he asked the Pharisees a question, "Whose son is the Messiah?"
They reply, "David, of course."
Jesus asks, "So why did David call the Messiah Lord in Psalm 110 if the Messiah is the descendant of David?"
The Pharisees didn't have a reply.
I confess, I'm not certain what to make of this passage.
I suppose part of the problem is that I'm not Jewish. I don't know what the Jewish concept of the Messiah is beyond the obvious that they believe the Messiah will be a descendant of David. Does that mean, they believe the Messiah will be human being?
I also don't know which passages in the Hebrew Scriptures Jewish theologians view as having Messianic implications.
From what I gather here, the Jewish religious leaders either didn't regard Psalm 110 as about the Messiah or they never resolved in their own minds how the Messiah would be a descendant of David and yet be regarded as higher than David.
Psalm 110 is relatively short, so let's go to the Psalm that Jesus is citing in this discussion:
(1) The LORD said to my Lord,The translation convention is usually "LORD" being YHWH in Hebrew and "Lord" being Adonai. YHWH is always the divine name. Adonai usually is divine though it might apply to a earthly king or someone of very high standing.
"Sit in honor at my right hand
until I humble your enemies,
making them a footstool under your feet."
(2) The LORD will extend your powerful dominion from Jerusalem[a];
you will rule over your enemies.
(3) In that day of battle,
your people will serve you willingly.
Arrayed in holy garments,
your vigor will be renewed each day like the morning dew.
(4) The LORD has taken an oath and will not break his vow:
"You are a priest forever in the line of Melchizedek."
(5) The Lord stands at your right hand to protect you.
He will strike down many kings in the day of his anger.
(6) He will punish the nations
and fill them with their dead;
he will shatter heads
over the whole earth.
(7) But he himself will be refreshed from brooks along the way.
He will be victorious.
Thus, verse 1 can mean at least two things (remember it is being written from David's point of view):
(1) The LORD said to my lord (Messiah) sit at my right hand ...
or
(2) The LORD said to my lord (King Solomon) sit at my right hand ...
Thus, one is a Messianic interpretation while the second option is not.
Then there is the mysterious verse 4: The LORD has taken an oath and will not break his vow: "You are a priest forever in the line of Melchizedek."
Melchizedek is a figure from Genesis 14. He was a king and priest. Usually, in Jewish life, the offices of priest and king are invested in separate individuals. Thus, was Psalm 110 about Solomon being granted this special status? Or is it about the Messiah, hence, Jesus?
Also, the overall tone of the power of this Lord is quite vast. Did David anticipate that his son Solomon's rule would become that great? Or was David thinking of a future Messiah who would wield such power?
Messiah complexity!
I don't claim to have it all figured out but something is afoot here that is hard for me as a non-Jew to grasp.
This is one of the reasons why there are Four Gospels. In the cultural milieu of the founding of Christianity there would be people steeped in Jewish thought and Matthew's account highlights these very Jewish elements in the Life and Times of Jesus.
Mark, Luke and John have elements of "Jewishness" in their accounts but they are much less than Matthew because those Gospels were written for the Roman and Greek believers.
Lord Jesus, you are the ultimate priest who without spot represents us before God. Lord Jesus, you are the ultimate king who rules with justice and compassion. Help me to follow you each day telling others about you with my life and words and deeds. Amen.
1 comment:
Dear Rene
Just thought I should point out that
1) in Psalms 110:1:
The LORD said to my Lord
Yes, according to convention, the first word, LORD, is indeed YHWH, GOD's divine name.
However, the second word has been wrongly capitalized Lord; because it is the Hebrew word adoni
This Hebrew word ought to be translated "lord"
(Bibles such as RSV, NRSV, NAB have corrected this.)
adoni in all its 195 occurrences is never ever used in reference to deity!
For more info on this fact, see
http://adonimessiah.blogspot.com/2006/08/adonai-and-adoni-psalm-1101.html
and
http://adonimessiah.blogspot.com/2006/08/who-is-jesus-god-or-unique-man-by.html
2) Adonai may not apply to a earthly king or someone of very high standing. In all its 449 occurrences it is used solely in reference to Almighy GOD!
The word you're looking for is again adoni!
Similar spelling however different connotation! This word is used to apply to a earthly king or someone of very high standing (however, is never used in ref. to deity). And of course, the Messiah indeed fits this criteria.
Hope this info helps to edify ...
Yours In Messiah
Adam Pastor
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